Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
10.06.2025 01:02
There's no rule.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
If there was only one man remaining on the Earth, would this be regarded as extinction?
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
You'll usually find your answer there.
How can people balance religious beliefs with seeking professional mental health care?
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.